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GHSV1 Disclosure Facts

› Forums › Herpes Questions › GHSV1 Disclosure Facts

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 3 months, 1 week ago by Terri Warren.
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    • December 10, 2022 at 9:27 am #79666
      Anxious51
      Participant

      Female 51, GHSV1, primary outbreak confirmed via swab in August 2022, nothing since.

      I have been struggling w ethics of disclosure due to stigma of this truly- benign skin condition but ultimately feel it is the right thing to do. I would like to have some facts condensed at the ready so hopefully I can quell the fear and panic that might be expressed by partner

      Partner, 50, Male, confirmed OHSV1

      For non protected and no meds sex,
      I have read that the risk of partner w existing oral getting genital from me is highly unlikely?
      is this true even though i am only 4 months out from dx? His oral is well established for years

      And for this purpose can we define highly i likely? – like struck by lightening unlikely or 1 in 100 unlikely?

      If there is even a minuscule risk from
      Above, would protected intercourse – antiviral and condom use make the chance of genital to genital transmission not an issue?

      Thank you!

    • December 12, 2022 at 12:58 pm #79684
      Anxious51
      Participant

      A couple more questions:
      *Can one have outbreaks when on meds?

      *Does having any pre-symptoms.. like tingling etc mean that an outbreak is imminent? Or that I am shedding only or that I am contagious?

      *with the partner having oral and me
      Genital, could he get this if I were sheddi g or it still doesnt matter bc he already has oral?

      I just want us to be able to enjoy sex without fear. is this possible?
      it feels impossible. The worst thing about this stupid virus is the psychological duress it causes

      Thank you Terri

    • December 15, 2022 at 4:00 pm #79744
      Terri Warren
      Keymaster

      I have read that the risk of partner w existing oral getting genital from me is highly unlikely?
      is this true even though i am only 4 months out from dx? His oral is well established for years
      Extremely low risk of infecting him genitally!

      And for this purpose can we define highly i likely? – like struck by lightening unlikely or 1 in 100 unlikely?
      I have seen it once in all the years I’ve practice – let’s say more than 35.

      If there is even a minuscule risk from
      Above, would protected intercourse – antiviral and condom use make the chance of genital to genital transmission not an issue?
      We don’t know that.

      A couple more questions:
      *Can one have outbreaks when on meds?
      Yes, that is possible

      *Does having any pre-symptoms.. like tingling etc mean that an outbreak is imminent? Or that I am shedding only or that I am contagious?
      Tingling MIGHT be prodromal but surely isn’t always – no way to know for certain except swab testing.

      *with the partner having oral and me
      Genital, could he get this if I were sheddi g or it still doesnt matter bc he already has oral?
      Correct, it still doesn’t matter because he already has this

      I just want us to be able to enjoy sex without fear. is this possible?
      it feels impossible. The worst thing about this stupid virus is the psychological duress it causes

      My personal opinion? Have sex, have fun, don’t let this get in the way

      Thank you Terri

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