› Forums › Herpes Questions › Is it HSV-1 and not HSV-2?
- This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 months, 2 weeks ago by Terri Warren.
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September 2, 2022 at 6:51 pm #78647BBB135Participant
Between December 2020 and May 2021, I had a partner outside of my marriage. Three weeks ago I experienced what I’d consider an initial outbreak. Lesions appeared on my mid abdomen, approximately 3” above my belly button and no where else. I ordered an IGG test for both HSV-1 and HSV-2. HSV-1 was negative and HSV-2 was positive 8.99. My husband was also tested and was negative for both. Should I question any of our results? I’m confused by the outbreak location. I assume it’s not a common location but possible for HSV-2? If I actually have genital herpes, I’m confused on how my husband would be negative after all this time as I assume I would have been having asymptomatic shedding. Thank you!
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September 3, 2022 at 8:20 am #78665Terri WarrenKeymaster
Was the lesion on your abdomen swab tested? it is possible to have a herpes outbreak there. You must have thought that might be a possibility to have been tested for herpes. Do you know the status of your other partner, in terms of HSV 2?
I have seen false positives per the western blot at that IgG level, but not commonly.
Not everyone transmits HSV 2 to their sex partners. You could conceptually have been infected a long time ago (did you have other partners prior to your marriage?) and now are infrequently shedding.Terri
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September 6, 2022 at 8:39 am #78705BBB135Participant
In my anxiety, I jumped the gun in posting. I was swab tested and the results came in as HSV-2 so I guess that is confirmation enough. I was monogamous (married 30+ years) but he was not. Both he and I were IGG tested in January 2020 and were both negative. As stated above, we both did IGG test the other week. He was negative. I was positive. I assume I contracted some time in the dates above. Up until 3 weeks ago, I had no symptoms. The outbreak on my mid abdomen came first. Just happened to feel a soreness, looked and there it was. It began to clear up and a week later another group appeared just below the first. This second outbreak was accompanied with mild headache, fever, chills, and fatigue. All in all, not bad. I’ve not had any genital symptoms whatsoever. Anyway, am I to assume this in my genital tract and not localized to abdomen dermatome (approximate T8 area)even if infection entered (again, assuming) here? I ask as I feel that due to a skin condition, it is possible I had a break in the skin as well as oral or genital contact there.
Is there a way to help determine where? (Oral and/or genital) I understand oral is rare but not zero.
Would I be wasting my money on blind swabs?
I see you say quite a few times on other posts, “95% transmit genitally which leaves 5% who do not.” Where is the 5% transmitted from? Oral? Whitlow? Anywhere else?
Any reason why not everyone transmits to their partner? My husband and I are EXTREMELY active. I think it’s a good assumption I’ve been unknowingly positive for more than a year (perhaps almost 2) and no precaution has been taken whatsoever.
Am I to assume I was shedding genitially during this outbreak on my abdomen?
If I contracted via anal sex, will I also shed vaginally? My husband and I are not in the practice of anal sex. Might this be why he hasn’t contracted?
Because timeline and outbreak location may not be “typical” I hope to make a little sense of it all. Thank you!
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September 7, 2022 at 3:38 pm #78722Terri WarrenKeymaster
Is there a way to help determine where? (Oral and/or genital) I understand oral is rare but not zero.
Since the outbreak is where it was, it is genitalWould I be wasting my money on blind swabs?
I believe you would, yesI see you say quite a few times on other posts, “95% transmit genitally which leaves 5% who do not.” Where is the 5% transmitted from? Oral? Whitlow? Anywhere else?
No, I said 95% of HSV 2 is genital – which is slightly different. The rest could also be genital or oral, we just don’t knowAny reason why not everyone transmits to their partner? My husband and I are EXTREMELY active. I think it’s a good assumption I’ve been unknowingly positive for more than a year (perhaps almost 2) and no precaution has been taken whatsoever.
We really don’t know why some couples transmit and some don’t. His test was an IgG, correct?Am I to assume I was shedding genitially during this outbreak on my abdomen?
I think you should assume that, even though it might not be true.If I contracted via anal sex, will I also shed vaginally? My husband and I are not in the practice of anal sex. Might this be why he hasn’t contracted?
Yes, you will also shed vaginallyBecause timeline and outbreak location may not be “typical” I hope to make a little sense of it all. Thank you!
you’re welcome
Terri
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