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I recently had a screening which revealed a positive HSV 2 IGG >5.00. I have never had an outbreak and so I am quite confused.
I have had an oral herpes outbreak, I am assuming HSV 1, but I have never had any genital blisters or ulceration. I am wondering how common it is to have a positive serum test without any clinical signs.
So in summary I tested positive for HSV 1 and 2, but have only had oral cold sores and no genital lesions. How could this be?
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So 80% of people who test positive for HSV 2 antibody say that have never had genital herpes. This is because the symptoms can be very subtle. And they are particularly subtle in the person who already has HSV 1 antibody. The HSV 1 antibody is very similar to the HSV 2 antibody so the antibody sees the virus coming (HSV 2), and it can’t stop it from getting in but it can make it much less symptomatic. That is the likely explanation here. Even though you have no symptoms, you can still transmit this virus to someone who is uninfected, I am sad to say. I know that’s hard news to hear.
Terri
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It depends upon the situation. If you are not sexually active or if you are having sex with someone who already has HSV 2, there is no need for suppression, no. If you are having sex with someone who tests negative for HSV 2, then suppression reduces transmission by almost half, so yes, that is an appropriate situation for someone to be on suppression.
Terri
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With suppression and sex about twice per week and no sex with outbreaks and irregular condoms use, the female to male transmission route is about 2% per year.
I think the odds of a false positive at >5 are about 5%.Terri
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