So Very Confused

[Need Help]

Terri. My other account won’t let me post, I did do the contact for twice.

Story:

Me: Never oral or genital symptoms. 1st nasty breakout with swollen groin nodes and bladder issues May 24,2023. Screened in April and retested in May for IgG. Negative on both tests.

Tested IgG AGAIN June 14, so 21 days post breakout. HSV-1 positive at 5.08.

What I want to know is: Am I just now starting to show antibodies to a new infection? If I had this before but didn’t know it wouldn’t the other prior tests have been positive?

Bf has long standing history of documented HSV-1, he tested with me and his IgG was 33.20. He had known oral but never genital symptoms. He did not give me oral sex. I gave him oral sex.

Lastly, IF I had an established infection, could his oral HSV-1 have triggered my genital HSV-1 to have its first outbreak?

[Terri Warren]

When you say first nasty outbreak, you don’t mention sores – did you have sores?
The three weeks between the two draws is a short time to have such a high HSV 1. The first test could have missed your HSV 1 previous infection or it is possible that you boyfriend has HSV 1 genitally as well, but that seems unlikely to me. I must admit I’m totally confused by your situation!

Terri

[Need Help]

Yes, sorry. Sores. TONS! Across the midline, some on thighs, on the genitals, IN the genitals. I have never in my life had anything like that. Is HSV-1 5.08 considered high? Also, I had 2 negative Igg tests. For both 1/2 first week in April, AND last week in May. The only positive I have ever seen was the most recent with the reading of 5.08 ab 3 weeks after the outbreak, and of course a positive swab but they didn’t type it. Boyfriends Igg was super high I thought (33.20). Does that indicate he’s been infected for a long/longer time? He tested positive for HSV-1 prior to meeting me (had cold sores since he was a small child), but never had Igg ab test until I mentioned getting it. Yeah, I don’t understand this at all. I’m wondering if he could’ve given it to himself down there from an oral sore he touched, and then touched his genital area OR could he have had another woman pass it from his mouth to his genitals? Also, I would imagine an infected woman could’ve given him oral sex as well at some point. But yes, I’ve never had any of the symptoms I had in May EVER before. I even got lymph node swelling. So for this to not have come from him, SOMEHOW I got the same virus type he has had for years, from someone else and never had any symptoms until this freak time in May when we had more unprotected sex. 🙁

• This reply was modified 2 months, 3 weeks ago by Need Help.

[Terri Warren]

Your partner’s IgG results indicate that he’s been infected for quite a while, yes. And this fits with his cold sore history.
I’m not at all clear about how this happened to you but from your lab work, it appears that this is a new infection. Is it possible that he used his saliva in your genital area, perhaps for lubrication?

Terri

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