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I’m 50 year old male, fever blisters since I was a kid. 25 years ago I met my wife (ex-wife now). Before we married I performed oral on her, shortly thereafter she called, had went to the doctor and said she had herpes. We both got tested, both came back as type 1. We had unprotected sex for 25 years. In that 25 years, on literally about 3 occasions she refused sex and said she might have an something going on down there. Actually I think she just wasn’t in the mood. Other than that she never showed any signs ever. Spontaneous sex all the time. I have never had the first sign of anything in my genital area, ever. I know the risks from my mouth area. Any chance I have it in the genital area with no signs ever. I don’t want to pass it on to someone else whether genital or oral from my genital area. I of course read that since I had it orally since I was a kid, then genital is highly unlikely. Is it almost 100% that I am clear down there. I haven’t seen this answered anywhere and believe me I have looked. I was faithful in the marriage, I’m certain she was.
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Once you have well established oral HSV 1 infection, you are extremely unlike to acquire this genitally. In 33 years of practice, I have seen an exception PERHAPS one time, and I’m not even convinced about that one case.
Terri
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