February 26, 2016 at 8:55 pm #12206
This is a long story… five years ago I was then married for 24 years, had only one partner, and had a routine checkup.
The checkup revealed HSV2 1.4.
Over the course of one year I did several tests:
Biokit: negative for HSV2
Herpeselect: approximately 4 tests all ranging from 1.4 to 1.6
Western Blot 1st time: indeterminate
Western Blot six months later: considered positive
I am positive for HSV1 but can’t remember the number…
The interesting thing here is that when I spoke to the doctor at Univ of WA she said that the two Western Blot test results were the same, she spoke about bands and my results not following a typical
Nevertheless, they considered the first one indeterminate, but the second one positive.
In the last five years I have never had any outbreaks or discomfort. I have been checking myself
inside and out and haven’t seen anything suspicious.
Now, I have met a man who has HSV2 for sure, with outbreaks which he controls with Valtrex whenever he feels a tingling sensation.
My question is, assuming I were indeed positive, would that mean that I am immune to HSV2 and not get any outbreaks from him?
I am in the process of getting the Western Blot results again and talking to a Univ of Wash doctor again to revisit this topic. I really would like to know if I am positive or not!
February 27, 2016 at 9:01 am #12213
Of course you would like to know that. Unfortunately, some people have this indeterminate status that is confusing. Are you working directly with UW or are you getting the blot through our study? Do you know who you spoke with at UW?
February 27, 2016 at 4:45 pm #12224
I don’t remember the name of the doctor I spoke with 5 years ago.
I am trying to get the result of the tests from 5 years ago and discuss with a doctor again at UW.
I’m not sure what the recommendation will be moving forward… maybe take another western blot? not sure.
So I’ve been thinking about the following question… I’m not sure if I can ask it now or if I need to pay more, if so, please let me know. Somewhere I read about someone who had a partner with HSV2. She was negative for HSV2 but, thinking about a future pregnancy, thought about forcing transmission of HSV2 to her mouth so that she wouldn’t transmit HSV2 to a baby vaginally in the future.
I wonder, would it make sense, if you really want to be with someone who has HSV2, to find a way to transmit the virus to the hand in order to get herpetic whitlow. Wouldn’t that mean that you would be immune and not get outbreaks in mouth or genitally?
Personally, I’m not sure I would mind so much getting herpetic whitlow compared to the other two.
Do you know of any cases where a person knows that he or she only has herpetic whitlow? If so, what are the chances that the virus would go to the mouth or genital area?
Do you have any advice on how I could possibly find out if I do or don’t have HSV2?
Thank you so much in advance.
February 28, 2016 at 7:56 am #12225
If you were indeterminate before, you could certainly be indeterminate again. I would recommend that you obtain a second western blot and if it is also indeterminate, after 5 years, you should consider yourself negative. some people have a protein that artificially trips part of the western blot herpes test and they are always indeterminate. It would be far better to do that than try to get herpes somewhere on your body to avoid getting it genitally. If you do test indeterminate, which we would interpret as negative at this point, and you are with someone who has confirmed HSV 2, getting it another place to avoid getting it genitally is a possibility. The best place would be oral as the virus recurs and sheds very infrequently when it is oral. Whitlow can be very painful and cause quite remarkable outbreaks on the hand – I really don’t recommend that.
February 28, 2016 at 10:45 am #12227
Terri, thank you for your answers. I am a little confused about how many questions I can ask in each round. I have paid another round just in case.
So here are my questions…
I am confused about the risk of transmission if he masturbates and then uses his hand on my genital area, inside, and around clitoris and labia. We did this once… I believe he used the left hand for the most part (right hand to masturbate himself), but I’m not sure. Also, since our intimate encounter was unexpected he was not on suppressive medicine, he usually takes medication when he feels the tingling sensation (episodic therapy).
Is it safe to say that during this encounter my risk was about 4%? (no penetration, only masturbation and he gave me oral)
In the future, if we mutually masturbated and used the hand that doesn’t touch his genital area, would that be 100% safe?
I am also confused about oral sex, if a condom is used and I give oral sex, making sure that his skin does not touch mine, would that be 100% safe?
A general question, is it possible to have a sexually satisfying life with someone without acquiring the virus for years (assuming medication is taken, condoms are used, etc)?
He said that his past girlfriend of six years did not acquire the virus… is this possible?
February 28, 2016 at 10:52 am #12228
The masturbation activity that you describe is incredibly low risk! I would be stunned if anyone acquired herpes in this way. And yes, if he is wearing a condom and you give him oral sex, that is not a risk at all. It is totally possible to be in a sexually satisfying relationship with someone who has herpes and not get it, absolutely! Him doing the things you list will reduce the risk, having sex about twice per week, to about 2-3 % per year. And yes, it is certainly possible that his past partner did not acquire herpes.
You now have three more questions total. For each subscription, you get three posts
February 28, 2016 at 11:33 am #12230
Thank you for your prompt answers. Since I have three more questions I will ask them now 🙂
1. since I don’t remember completely, if he masturbated himself with the right hand and then used the same right hand to masturbate me, would you give me the same answer about the activity being low risk?
2. how effective is episodic therapy versus daily therapy?
3. should I ask him to take medicine daily instead?
February 28, 2016 at 11:35 am #12231
Yes, I took the hand masturbation into account when I answered your question. Even if he happened to be shedding virus at that exact moment, I seriously doubt that he could ever get enough virus on his hand to infect you – no way.
Episodic therapy does nothing to reduce transmission – it has to be taken daily to reduce shedding on a regular basis.
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