I am a 48 year old female. I have been married for 11 years with two children ages 8 and 9. I have not been with any other partners and my husband also states he has been faithful. Before my marriage, I had been with other partners and some of those were unprotected. A few days ago I noticed a sore ulcerated looking area around the opening to my vagina. I went to the GYN today and she said she thinks its herpes. I am devastated and don’t understand how this could happen. She cultured the sores, did blood work and put me on Valtrex. My husband has never had any outbreaks or issues of any kind. We do not get cold sores although my son had a really bad one about a year ago after an illness. We have a good sex life and have not had any issues there. My husband had may more partners than I did and many were unprotected. Is it possible that it has been dormant all this time and could my husband be dormant for all this time and given it to me even though he has not had any outbreaks?
Thank you for your input
It is absolutely possible! It is also very very important that you call your health care provider today and be certain that the swab test that was taken is being typed (HSV 1 vs. HSV 2). HSV 1 recurs very infrequently. Is your husband the giver of oral sex to you? If yes, then even without a cold sore he could have infected you during oral sex. Or, as you note, you could have had this for years and you are just recognizing your first recurrence or he could have had it for years and recently infected you. A newly recognized outbreak does NOT indicate infidelity so I hope you don’t jump to that conclusion. The swab test results should come back in just a few days. You might call and ask if the test being run is culture or PCR. PCR from a lesion is far more sensitive than culture but both can be typed and a culture could certainly also be positive. How long after the sore showed up did you have it swab tested?
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