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The positive test in January was done because went to my physician to be tested for any STD’s when I found out my spouse had been unfaithful. I had no symptoms at that time, they were just tested me for everything. The outbreak was in June. The person whom I had oral sex with in June did not have an outbreak that he knew of at the time but I don’t know if he has in the past (unfortunately I don’t know much about his sexual history).
Thank you for your help with this, it’s all so confusing. I’m sorry I didn’t mention this sooner but I also had a lesion on my nipple at the same time as the genital outbreak. Very painful and I figured it was because there was also contact between his mouth and my nipple. So to be clear, I could pass on HSV-1 to a person who has never been exposed but if it is someone who has HSV-1 orally, they are unlikely to get it genitally?