I see from other posts that some folks have sought to acquire HSV2 orally, supposedly because the outbreaks are less severe and perhaps less frequent. And I see that you’ve been in relationships with HSV2 positive partner for…18 years?…and remain HSV2 free because of your partner’s use of suppressive dose. Why would it make sense to acquire HSV2 orally when there is the possibility that with suppressive dose it may never be transmitted? Do you ever recommend that your patients seek to get it orally, and if so, why?
In a long distance, yet monagomous relationship, where outbreaks remain infrequent or non-existant after the first one, is it medically prudent to be on a daily suppressive dose rather than to start it 5 days out from being together with my partner? I understand there are potential liver problems (any other concerning side-effects you know of?) with Valtrex, so this is partially why I don’t want to take it daily if not necessary.