“If you kiss a child and have HSV 1, transmission is close to zero if you have no cold sore”. And I read (in another book – not yours!) that for adults with oral HSV 1, “As long as there are no lesions on the mouth, kissing poses no risk.” (Happy to provide the name of the book if you want it.)
So the way you kiss a child is nothing like how you would kiss a lover with more mucous membrane in the mouth exposed from which shedding can occur. Does that make sense? Giving oral sex to an uninfected person presents some risk because virus can be shed from the inside of the mouth (unlike the thicker skin of the lip).
Lots of people who are infected orally with HSV 1 don’t have outbreaks that they ever remember or notice. Then something immunologic happens and an outbreak emerges. I think you are looking for assurance that you are either infected orally or not I don’t believe you can know that.
I don’t recall what you said was the time between possible infection and your first outbreak. So if there was no risky exposure and then all of a sudden an outbreak more than about 21 days later happens, this was not the first infection, just the first recognized outbreak. Do you see what I am saying?
The Valtrex taken would most certainly have made the first outbreak milder!
I would bet a great deal of money that herpes is not causing (or ever caused) some abnormality on you cervix that is causing deep burning pain. I’m guessing that is something else entirely.
I’m not sure what the question here is:” Finally, you wrote in other posts that “oral HSV 2 is not of much significance, but sometimes people do acquire it in both locations” but also “that if you got HSV 2 orally, you would essentially be vaccinated against getting it genitally.”