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That makes sense about the oral shedding, although the book I quoted was referencing adult-to-adult kissing in a foreplay manner. However I am not asking you to explain someone else’s writing. I think I get it. It’s a relief to know I have not exposed the children in my life, at least.
As for the oral infection, I am just trying to understand. In previous comments from you and from what I have read elsewhere, it is unlikely that someone is infected both orally and genitally. You said you doubted my oral HSV 1 status when I could not remember much about having had a cold sore, but it sounds like the absence of cold sores symptoms does not necessarily mean there is no oral HSV 1 infection. I am wondering your thoughts on my never getting a cold sore even with the extensive dental (implants put in, removed, put back in, bone transplant to my jaw, root canals, etc.) and multiple surgeries on my nose. The nose surgeries were not deep – they were to remove basal cell carcinomas and do minor repair. I had minor cosmetic surgery on my eyelids. So I have either never had a cold sore or have not had one for decades, despite lots of sun exposure and facial surgeries. My hope is that suggestive (not confirmation) that the infection is not oral?
As for the time between possible infection – all I know is that I first tested positive for HSV-1 in 2006 or 2007. I was not having symptoms and only got tested as a routine thing, so when they called me with the results, said everything was negative except for HSV-1 and told me it was oral and that I likely caught it as a kid, so I didn’t try to piece together recent exposure. I do know I was sexually active and not in a committed relationship, hence the reason for my wanting to know my status. But I had never been tested prior to 2006 so no way of knowing if it was a new infection.
As for this time – I have had sex twice in the past year – both times with the same person, his status is not known (to me at this time and likely not to him either). The second time which was end of September he performed oral on me, which was the first time anyone has in years. So I know he did not infect me since I tested positive in 2006. But since I have been asymptomatic for so long (either forever or at least since 2008), I can’t help but wonder if he has a slightly different strain and that provoked an OB for me. Or if my previous oral positive was so weak that I was still vulnerable to a genital infection. I know science would probably say no but the science has been wrong with this virus, and what was once “known” is now known to not to be true with many other things. Doesn’t matter I guess and I’ll never know anyway.
My questions in large part are because I need to disclose to my September partner who is also a lifelong friend. He is in an otherwise committed relationship and I know he is faithful to her except for me. I know some people take this kind of thing in stride but my guess he is going to be one of the people who is more upset, at least initially. I want to be as informed as I can be when I talk to him. I feel like he’s going to be getting the worst of news in some ways b/c if he did not know his status prior, never had symptoms and now tests positive, he will have no way of knowing whether it is oral or genital. And of course we’ll have no way of knowing if a positive status is from me or not but that is small comfort to me and will probably be no comfort to him.
Am I understanding correctly that if a NEW ob is going to occur from a recent exposure, it will do so within 21 days of that exposure? If so, is that true for both oral and genital?
My question about the HSV 2 is whether or not it is true that an oral HSV 2 infection will protect against acquiring a new genital HSV 2 infection, as indicated by the second quote, or if it does not, as indicated by the first quote. If it does afford protection, I guess that means that people can have it in both places if they acquire it genitally first, but not if they acquire it orally? Is that then true for HSV 1?