Thank you, Terri.
I think I understand your point but let me get this straight:
In case of someone HSV2 positive, asymptomatic shedding does not occur through thick skin of pubic area but asymptomatic shedding does still occur through the thin skin of the penis or anus regardless of site of initial infection and regardless of site of subsequent outbreaks. Correct?
If the above is correct, in cases where there are no symptoms of outbreak, and where latex condoms are properly used, would risk of transmission be limited to instances of broken condoms?
Also, how probable is it that asymptomatic shedding will occur in the penis when there have been no outbreaks or symptoms there?
Please confirm or correct.