I don’t know if I’m stating my question correctly, but I am very curious.
I understand the possibility of the spill over effect with HSV1 antibodies, but is it ever possible that its the other way around. That an HSV2 infection could be kept dormant by the body, and could produce low positives with strong HSV1 antibodies present, but the person is truly HSV2 positive?
Is there a difference in terms of what is a true negative with high vs. low negatives?
I began suppression about 15 weeks after the one time sexual encounter. I guess its up to me, whether I want to spend the money for a Western Blot at this point while I’m on suppression or waiting till I feel comfortable with getting off of antivirals (I don’t want to put my partner in higher risk of possibly getting HSV2 if he already doesn’t have it).
Thank you again Terri. I really appreciate your help.