In my anxiety, I jumped the gun in posting. I was swab tested and the results came in as HSV-2 so I guess that is confirmation enough. I was monogamous (married 30+ years) but he was not. Both he and I were IGG tested in January 2020 and were both negative. As stated above, we both did IGG test the other week. He was negative. I was positive. I assume I contracted some time in the dates above. Up until 3 weeks ago, I had no symptoms. The outbreak on my mid abdomen came first. Just happened to feel a soreness, looked and there it was. It began to clear up and a week later another group appeared just below the first. This second outbreak was accompanied with mild headache, fever, chills, and fatigue. All in all, not bad. I’ve not had any genital symptoms whatsoever. Anyway, am I to assume this in my genital tract and not localized to abdomen dermatome (approximate T8 area)even if infection entered (again, assuming) here? I ask as I feel that due to a skin condition, it is possible I had a break in the skin as well as oral or genital contact there.
Is there a way to help determine where? (Oral and/or genital) I understand oral is rare but not zero.
Would I be wasting my money on blind swabs?
I see you say quite a few times on other posts, “95% transmit genitally which leaves 5% who do not.” Where is the 5% transmitted from? Oral? Whitlow? Anywhere else?
Any reason why not everyone transmits to their partner? My husband and I are EXTREMELY active. I think it’s a good assumption I’ve been unknowingly positive for more than a year (perhaps almost 2) and no precaution has been taken whatsoever.
Am I to assume I was shedding genitially during this outbreak on my abdomen?
If I contracted via anal sex, will I also shed vaginally? My husband and I are not in the practice of anal sex. Might this be why he hasn’t contracted?
Because timeline and outbreak location may not be “typical” I hope to make a little sense of it all. Thank you!