Maybe I’m overestimating how many sex encounters include oral. Are there other bits of information that help you make the assumption that it isn’t G-G transmission when cases come in? Things like ‘plenty of GHSV-2 patients come in and get diagnosed with out having had oral, and no GHSV-1 cases ever come in where they haven’t, so we can make assumptions about how it mainly transmits”. Or do you make that assumption based on your thoughts of how shedding statistics would play out? Let’s say the positive transmitting partner had a positive genital swab, would you still assume they passed it on to their negative partner orally since cross infection is rare?
I’ve read forum posts of people claiming that GHSV-1 is in a weakened state because of it not being in it’s preferred location, and that it may have trouble transmitting because it literally isn’t capable of bringing enough virus to the surface when it’s not in an outbreak. Have you heard of any studies or have speculation on that line of thinking, or is the only reason ghsv-1 is considered weakened is because of its lower shedding rate?
I’ve heard the amount protection condoms give men against hsv is sort of debated. Do you know of any data specific to that question?
Do you have a link showing the most recent studies of ghsv-1 shedding over time? Like a chart showing the decrease as the months go by?