THe first part of your question is a bit confusing to me. If someone had a genital lesion that tested positive for HSV 1 and they had just had sex with someone who then acquired HSV 1 genitally, yes, I would think that was genital to genital transmission. HSV 1 does have a preferred location and it is the oral area. It is true that I have not seen a case, personally, of someone with new genital HSV 1 infection that has not received oral sex in the past two weeks. GEnital to genital transmission of HSV 1 has been documented in the literature, but most of us have never seen this (without oral sex in the mix).
It isn’t that HSV 1 is in some sort of weakened state genitally, it is that it doesn’t like being there so it is rarely active there, especially after being there for a while.
We know that condoms reduce transmission from females to males by 65% – that is the work of Dr. Anna Wald.
Dr. Christine Johnston is the person who does most of the research into HSV 1 genital infection at this time. I have certainly seen her slides on this topic but I’m not clear if she has published this data yet.