I have read that the risk of partner w existing oral getting genital from me is highly unlikely?
is this true even though i am only 4 months out from dx? His oral is well established for years
Extremely low risk of infecting him genitally!
And for this purpose can we define highly i likely? – like struck by lightening unlikely or 1 in 100 unlikely?
I have seen it once in all the years I’ve practice – let’s say more than 35.
If there is even a minuscule risk from
Above, would protected intercourse – antiviral and condom use make the chance of genital to genital transmission not an issue?
We don’t know that.
A couple more questions:
*Can one have outbreaks when on meds?
Yes, that is possible
*Does having any pre-symptoms.. like tingling etc mean that an outbreak is imminent? Or that I am shedding only or that I am contagious?
Tingling MIGHT be prodromal but surely isn’t always – no way to know for certain except swab testing.
*with the partner having oral and me
Genital, could he get this if I were sheddi g or it still doesnt matter bc he already has oral?
Correct, it still doesn’t matter because he already has this
I just want us to be able to enjoy sex without fear. is this possible?
it feels impossible. The worst thing about this stupid virus is the psychological duress it causes
My personal opinion? Have sex, have fun, don’t let this get in the way
Thank you Terri