Oh :/ well damn that’s not good
Well, my partner and I did have sex at the (what I thought) was the end of the outbreak, and now I’m stressing about that as we didn’t use a condom.
I really thought that starting the antivirals at the first sign of symptoms (tingling) and then taking the consistent higher dose valtrex would stop viral replication and also reduce the amount of virus present.
Especially considering it was days later so there had been lots of time for the medication to work and all my typical symptoms ceased completely the way they do when the outbreak is “over”.
So, I guess I’m trying to find a way to wrap my head around this to determine whether:
1) potentially there couldve been virus present in the little scabs although the valtrex had been taken for days and at a high dose?
2) ***But was there also a possibility that I wasn’t contagious anymore because of the high dose??***
3) he’s not showing symptoms almost 20 days later so chances are he’s ok?