thank you terri. it feels good to have the oddness of this all affirmed 🙂
it occurred to me that she might have had this but she’d never had any symptoms before and my previous partner to her was told by a partner from years before, days after we’d spent a number of nights together, that he had herpes and that she might have it. we used protection but the condom did break once and i did perform oral on her.
My encounters with the first partner in question were from July 27 – August 12th. My encounter with the second woman who likely got it from me was August 14th. We both began to get genital symptoms Aug 16/17th. It was painful urinating for me and ejaculating was also very painful. The symptoms in my mouth began around August 24/25th and lasted almost two weeks.
And yes – I’ve never seen any lesions on the surface of my genitals at all (and man have I searched and been searched at the clinic). As far as I know I’ve never had herpes before this summer. But it’s possible I did? I’ve never done the antibodies test.
So I suppose my question remains: Assuming I have HSV1 genitally and orally and, in the future, I meet a woman whose had oral cold sores for years and we have unprotected sex while I’m shedding… are you saying it’s unlikely in the extreme that she would get HSV1 genitally from me? Or that if she has HSV1 genitally and not orally and we made out that she wouldn’t get it orally?
Thank you so much for taking the time on this unusual situation.