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Now that I’m spitballing there’s another detail that might be useful I forgot to mention above. My ex does has a history of cold sores on her mouth. I witnessed one while we were dating. She performed unprotected oral on me many times.
I know both IgG and WB are designed to distinguish between HSV 1 and 2. I can’t remember if it accurately makes the same distinction when it’s a genital infection caused by an oral one.
Anyway figured that might be necessary to know.
Thank you for you responses above.
So I probably should’ve addressed this in my first post, but I had made some assumptions that have recently turned out to be false. So, the girlfriend I was seeing at the time of my initial outbreak was also tested a few weeks after I was and the results were negative. We continued seeing each other for about a month or so but eventually split up for reasons unrelated to this. I never did see her test results but had no reason to think that she was being deceitful, so I took her word for it. However, after I became more informed about testing accuracy and seroconversion time I arrived at the same conclusion you did in your initial response which was this must’ve been a new infection, meaning it came from her. Again, I hadn’t slept with anyone else prior for at least 6-7 months so if I contracted before we started having sex my first IgG should’ve been positive. At that point there were a number of scenarios going through my head. She didn’t get tested out of fear, she forgot to specifically ask for a herpes panel so her GYNO didn’t order one, or she had been unfaithful got tested but hadn’t reached seroconversion. Either way we were done and it wasn’t going to change my positive status.
Well, I couldn’t leave it alone. I needed proof, so I reached out to her recently and requested a copy of the results and they are indeed negative. Assuming she didn’t sleep with anyone else while we were together (I have no reason to believe she did). What’re the odds that one of our IgG tests didn’t pick up the virus?
Again, my only two outbreaks were minimal and on the scrotum, it’s clear now that we both had negative first results, and I’ve seen in some of your other posts that even with the WB an unrelated protein can trigger positive results. I know it’s slim to none, but is there any other explanation of a similar looking genital outbreak or anything else that could be going on?
You’d know better than I on the HSV 1. However, I’ve never had symptoms and surely one of the four tests would’ve detected it, right… is WB not the “gold standard” for HSV 1 as it is for 2?
I’d like to ask you more about shedding and sexual contact. Do those with either zero or intermittent outbreaks shed at a lesser frequency than individuals with constant outbreaks?
Is there a measurable percentage on how much shedding or transmission decreases overtime, say every year? Outbreaks are easy… don’t have sex. But the shedding is tricky because you’ll never know.
Also what’re your thoughts on claims about homeopathic antiviral supplements for herpes suppression such as olive leaf extract, oil of oregano, coconut oil? I know first hand the beneficial role that diet, nutrition, and natural supplementation can play in combating sickness and disease as I had issues with IBS and fatigue in the past. As I’m sure you know there’s tons of material out there claiming the above mentioned can be helpful in herpes suppression but it all seems grassroots… I haven’t stumbled across any concrete medical evidence.