Forum Replies Created
August 20, 2015 at 8:28 am in reply to: Transmission re: clothing, massage (non-sensual) and oral HPV 2 transmission #8899
Thank you, Teri. That does bring peace of mind as far as my daughter goes, although I wear very thin underpants and I think I was shedding because I was wearing them just prior to an outbreak. Yes, I am certain I do not have HSV -2 both via blood tests (several) and swabs.
Last question: my partner does not like to take Valtrez and has some considerable health problems so I understand why he doesn’t want one more medication. As an older man, he is no longer able to tolerate condoms – loses sensation. Although I understand my risk of acquiring HSV 2 is low and the outbreaks might be milder, I already have enough aggravation with HSV 1 and other health issues, and I simply don’t want to risk acquiring the type 2 strain. Our sex life has suffered as a result. Do you think female condoms would afford me some protection? That might be the perfect solution since I am hyper sensitive thanks to menopause anyway!
I am really hoping he is negative for both. We will not be intimate again anyway. I am only telling him so he is advised of the past-tense risk.
Thanks again for your help.
No, did not expect you to say I acquired a new strain. I simply have a theory that exposure to a different strain MAY have provoked an OB in me from my previous existing infection. I know it is not supported by the science right now. I have been told a lot of things about HSV and my body in recent years that have turned out not to be true. I understand now how that happened, that there is new information, that some clinicians are not as knowledgeable as others, that some culture tests can be false-negative. I understand this is a complex virus. And I understand that for me, figuring things out (for example, as to what may provoke an OB) helps me digest and come to terms – even if it is just speculation.
I did tell you a number of times that I had tested positive in 2006 or 2007. I know you get a lot of messages with tons of detail. If I ever had a cold sore, it was long before that – decades ago. So, in sum, I have had:
-possibly one cold sore (many decades ago)
-possibly one noticeable OB in 2008, (seems likely but doctor said symptoms were not herpes-related)
-confirmed via swab genital HSV-1 in 2014.
So this is my first or second noticeable genital OB in 6 or 8 years, with one or no oral obs in several decades. And even though I tested positive for HSV 1 in 2006/7, b/c of what I was told by the doctors, I believed I only had oral. In reality, I really just found out that I have genital herpes a few days ago. So I am still reeling a bit. I think that’s understandable.
Because of my experience, I want to make sure I give the best possible information to my friend when I disclose. My concern about disclosing is based on what I anticipate his response to be, which is based on knowing him. I don’t think he will take it well and my delivery will only have so much influence over that. It’s not like he’s never heard of it. That doesn’t mean I am going to be presenting it as if it is a cancer diagnosis – but let’s be real- it’s not like telling someone they won a raffle prize.
Thanks for your help.
That makes sense about the oral shedding, although the book I quoted was referencing adult-to-adult kissing in a foreplay manner. However I am not asking you to explain someone else’s writing. I think I get it. It’s a relief to know I have not exposed the children in my life, at least.
As for the oral infection, I am just trying to understand. In previous comments from you and from what I have read elsewhere, it is unlikely that someone is infected both orally and genitally. You said you doubted my oral HSV 1 status when I could not remember much about having had a cold sore, but it sounds like the absence of cold sores symptoms does not necessarily mean there is no oral HSV 1 infection. I am wondering your thoughts on my never getting a cold sore even with the extensive dental (implants put in, removed, put back in, bone transplant to my jaw, root canals, etc.) and multiple surgeries on my nose. The nose surgeries were not deep – they were to remove basal cell carcinomas and do minor repair. I had minor cosmetic surgery on my eyelids. So I have either never had a cold sore or have not had one for decades, despite lots of sun exposure and facial surgeries. My hope is that suggestive (not confirmation) that the infection is not oral?
As for the time between possible infection – all I know is that I first tested positive for HSV-1 in 2006 or 2007. I was not having symptoms and only got tested as a routine thing, so when they called me with the results, said everything was negative except for HSV-1 and told me it was oral and that I likely caught it as a kid, so I didn’t try to piece together recent exposure. I do know I was sexually active and not in a committed relationship, hence the reason for my wanting to know my status. But I had never been tested prior to 2006 so no way of knowing if it was a new infection.
As for this time – I have had sex twice in the past year – both times with the same person, his status is not known (to me at this time and likely not to him either). The second time which was end of September he performed oral on me, which was the first time anyone has in years. So I know he did not infect me since I tested positive in 2006. But since I have been asymptomatic for so long (either forever or at least since 2008), I can’t help but wonder if he has a slightly different strain and that provoked an OB for me. Or if my previous oral positive was so weak that I was still vulnerable to a genital infection. I know science would probably say no but the science has been wrong with this virus, and what was once “known” is now known to not to be true with many other things. Doesn’t matter I guess and I’ll never know anyway.
My questions in large part are because I need to disclose to my September partner who is also a lifelong friend. He is in an otherwise committed relationship and I know he is faithful to her except for me. I know some people take this kind of thing in stride but my guess he is going to be one of the people who is more upset, at least initially. I want to be as informed as I can be when I talk to him. I feel like he’s going to be getting the worst of news in some ways b/c if he did not know his status prior, never had symptoms and now tests positive, he will have no way of knowing whether it is oral or genital. And of course we’ll have no way of knowing if a positive status is from me or not but that is small comfort to me and will probably be no comfort to him.
Am I understanding correctly that if a NEW ob is going to occur from a recent exposure, it will do so within 21 days of that exposure? If so, is that true for both oral and genital?
My question about the HSV 2 is whether or not it is true that an oral HSV 2 infection will protect against acquiring a new genital HSV 2 infection, as indicated by the second quote, or if it does not, as indicated by the first quote. If it does afford protection, I guess that means that people can have it in both places if they acquire it genitally first, but not if they acquire it orally? Is that then true for HSV 1?