I can also specify that I am a gay male.
I’m a man, yes. I suppose why is it illegal to pass on ghsv1 if I’ve disclosed I have hsv1? Versus the vast majority of new ghsv1 cases which come from someone with oral hsv1… who don’t disclose even though it is the same thing? I’m just not understanding… which I think is probably because it actually makes no sense and society just has a weird view on where you have the exact same disease. Blah 😆
Like could I sue or use the legal system against the person I acquired my hsv1 from even though theirs is oral?