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Understood, thanks.
I took your advice and took another IgG test and it was negative (<.90) for HSV-2.
This means my outbreak was due to HSV-1, correct? And likely just manifested because of the COVID or chance? It just seems really coincidental that I experienced symptoms approx. 2 weeks after sexual interactions with this person, yet my IgG for HSV-1 suggests a longer standing infection. What do you make of this? Is it possible that my HSV-1 could have been genital from the start and I was just asymptomatic until 6 months ago?